Hastings Challengers 2002-03
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| White has just captured on d4 - what should the result be? |
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White is winning easily, according to the analysis engines Komodo10 and Stockfish10, but why is this? I am not sure, but I guess the main reason is White's central space advantage.
39...b5
The seems to be Black's best try, but White's advantage is large: approximately +10 according to Komodo10, almost +24 according to Stockfish10.
40.f5 a5
Hoping to create a queenside passed pawn.
41.Ke4 Kd7 42.d5 c5
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43.d6?
White keeps a winning advantage with a move such as 43.f6 or 43.e6+.
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43...a4?
The general rule that it is best to first advance the unopposed pawn of a majority is correct here (but note that White's 43.d6? incorrectly conformed to that rule). After 43...c4 our postmortem analysis went 44.Kd4 Kc6 45.g6 hxg6 46.e6 Kxd6 47.exf7 Kxf7 48.fxg6, which is drawn after 48...a4. However the engines show White wins with the intricate line 45.a4!, eg 45...b4 46.Kxc4 Kd7 47.Kd4 Kc6 48.e6 Kxd6 49.exf7 Ke7 50.g6 hxg6 51.fxg6 Kf8 52.Ke5 Ke7 53.Ke4 Kf8 54.Kf5 Ke7 55.Kg5 b3 56.Kh6 b2 57.Kg7 b1=Q 58.f8=Q+ etc.
But this is academic as, going back to the position after 44.Kd4, the engines find 44...a4, which seems to draw, eg 45.e6+ Kxd6 46.exf7 Ke7 47.g6 hxg6 48.fxg6 Kf8 49.Ke5 Ke7 50.Ke4 and now, rather than 50...Kf8?, which loses in a similar way to the previous line thanks to 51.Kf5 etc, Black draws with 50...c3 or 50...b4.
The game finished:
44.Kd5 b4 45.e6+ fxe6 46.fxe6+ Kd8 47.Kc6 b3 48.e7+ Ke8 49.d7+ Kxe7 50.Kc7 b2 51.d8=Q+ Kf7 52.Qf6+ 1-0
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